Saturday,
September 07, 2002 11:26 PM
Hand Evaluation - KCB ( Agreed Suit )
PITBULLS:
One of the basics of KCB is that there must be an
“agreed” suit when partner leaps to 4NT . Kantar
discusses this : The rule is that if there is room in a forcing auction to support partner
but that does not happen , a jump
to 4NT is quantitative or in rare cases
standard Blackwood.
If the opponents pre-empt you so there is no room ,
the last suit bid is agreed for
KCB. If partner in a minor suit auction
had a chance to support but did not , a
jump to 4NT is quantitative. Do
not be lazy. Support partner to
clarify the situation !!
The
opponents were a pest in this auction. I held ♠KQxx ♥x ♦AJ10987x ♣K , partner opened 1♣
, I responded 1♦. They bid 2♥ , Partner bid 2♠ with RHO
bidding 3♥ . The opponents are
pre-empting you in this auction
by taking away bidding room. The last suit
bid by partner is the agreed suit for KCB purposes. I take control by bidding
4NT so we get to a cold grand slam via KCB & a suit asking bid in diamonds.
Do not over do this concept. The last suit is only the agreed suit because the opponent’s jamming you makes it so.
Kantar discusses 2♣ auctions
where the 2♣ bidder has agreed
suit KCB rights by virtue of the nature of
the beast.
THE AGREED SUIT
If there is one area where partnership agreement is a
must, it is having simple rules to determine the agreed suit when there has
been no agreed suit! Much depends upon
system. Two over one game forcing?
Most expert partnerships have their own rules- and they are not all the
same! I am not on firm ground here, but I will offer several
debatable suggestions.
Opener
Responder
1S
4NT
?
Is spades the agreed suit because it was the last (only) bid suit?
Many players would say yes. Not me. Any
experienced partnership must have a forcing raise.
Therefore, when responder wishes to ask for keycards in partner's opening
major suit bid, he makes a forcing raise and then bids 4NT.
This, in turn, liberates a direct jump to 4NT to be ace asking with no agreed
suit. The way we used to play.
If responder picks up: S. x H. KQx
D. AKQJxxx C. KQ he can leap to 4NT directly and get a simple ace
answering response.
What about this sequence?
Opener
Responder
1S
2D
2S
4NT ?
Does this agree spades? If you play 2 over 1 as a game force,
you can bid 3S to agree spades and then 4NT. Playing 2
over 1, 4NT in this sequence should NOT agree spades. It should probably agree
diamonds. Not everyone would agree with this
Here's another one:
Opener
Responder
1S
2D
2H
4NT?
Is hearts the agreed suit? Playing two over one, why didn't
responder agree hearts first by raising to 3H and then
bid 4NT? Playing 2 over 1 this should not be RKB for hearts.
What about after a strong 2C opening followed by natural, not control showing,
responses?
(a)
Opener
Responder
2C
2S
3H
3S
4NT
?
(b)
Opener
Responder
2C
3C
3H
3S
4NT
?
(c)
Opener
Responder
2C
2D
2H
2S
3H
3S
4NT
?
Is hearts or spades the agreed suit?
Consider the first sequence where responder has bid and rebid spades.
You might try this:
If the 2C opener bids a suit once and the
responder bids and rebids a suit, responder's suit is the agreed suit.
If the 2C opener bids one suit and the responder bids two different suits the
2C bidder's suit is still the agreed suit.
If the 2C opener bids and rebids the same suit, that is
the agreed suit period.
If opener has: Axx AKQxxx
AKQ x he would like spades to be
considered the agreed suit. But if opener has:
x AKJ10xxx AKQx A he
would like hearts to be the considered agreed suit.
Also, you must be prepared to handle 4NT after they have laid
a preempt on you.
South
West
North East
1H
3C
3D Pass
3S
Pass 4NT(?)
Is this for spades, hearts, diamonds, no agreed suit, or natural (may have too
much to rebid 3NT?)
The rule when there is no room
to establish a fit before game is reached , the last
suit is the agreed suit . In this auction 4H/S would end the auction so 4NT
agrees spades . A 4♣ Q bid would agree hearts
and then 4NT is clearly for hearts .